Divorce Grounds

Is withholding sex grounds for divorce?

Please help me settle an argument with someone: if a couple who has been married for 9 years and one of them doesn't want to have sex anymore like it's been 2 years since they had sex. Can one of them file for divorce because of that?

Public Comments

1. Most states are no fault and either party can divorce for any reason, or no reason. Withholding sex is cruel but very common. Typically employed by the females, withholding sex is a sure-fire way to make the inevitable divorce "his fault". Rejection is very effective and will work on almost anyone. The added bonus is it can make it all look like his fault for the kids, friends and family. No one needs to know the part about continuous and constant rejection going on for years.
2. Yes. It's written in the state laws, and is actually one of the reasons listed on the divorce application.
3. The one does not need a reason to file for divorce. They will get a divorce just by saying irreconcilable differences.
4. yes of course they can! that is definitely reasonable grounds for divorce. Im not sure of the legal word for it but I know you can.
5. personally, i would leave ANY woman who decided she didn't want sex anymore... and i'm pretty sure divorce would be on the grounds of "irreconcilable differences"...
6. You can divorce someone for no reason at all. So yeah, you could base your divorce reason on the grounds that "They are not giving me sex" but remember, it is their word against yours.
7. Yes, it's called constructive abandonment ....... I used this when I filed to divorce my first husband (3 yrs no sex) and the judge granted the divorce on my grounds.
8. .Actually (in the US) divorce doesn't require specific "grounds" anymore. The common complaint filed is "irreconcilable differences" which could mean anything...so yes, someone withholding sex could be justification for a divorce as they would have an irreconcilable difference. One party wants sex and the other won't give it until certain conditions are met (if at all) which means their difference in the view of when sex should be had cannot be reconciled.
9. Yes. It comes under "estrangement-lack of affections" clauses.
10. Even when states still had fault divorce (they no longer do) this *was* cause for a fault divorce citing "withholding the martial privilege". Today anyone can divorce for any reason. If you are religious, it is a tenet of marriage is that you are not to hold yourselves from one another. In Catholic law it is written as a mutual obligation in Jewish law it is the wife's right to demand sex from her husband! "I'm too tired" "Oh No You're Not!" In terms of vows, this is breaking "to have and to hold". Objectively, the one withholding is no better than someone that breaks "to forsake all others".
11. in the uk the answer would be yes and the grounds for divorce is called " unreasonable behaviour "