Should the man sue for divorce on grounds of adultery?
In humans, one of the genes determining color vision is located on the X chromosome. The dominant allele (C) produces normal color vision; red-green color blindness is caused by a recessive allele (c). Suppose a man with normal color vision marries a color-blind woman and they have a color-blind daughter. Should the man sue for divorce on grounds of adultery? Explain.
Public Comments
- You actually don't know enough to answer this question.... For example, does color blindness only occur in people who are (cc), or does it also occur in people who are (Cc)? Let's go with that it only occurs in people who are (cc). If the dad is (C_) (because he only has one X chromosome), then his wife would have to be (cc), because she's colorblind. The only way the daughter would be colorblind as well was if the father was (c_). Since her 'father' was (C_), there's no way that he is her father, it would have to be another man. Yes he should sue. I'm sorry if you're confused, genetics is pretty difficult to explain without pictures...but good luck!
- Colorblindness is the result of a defect in te photopigment system genes located on the X chromosome, thus males have one copy and females have two copies. A daughter will receive one X chromosome from each parent. Typically, the daughter will get one working copy from the father and not express color blindness. There are a number of scenarios where color blindness will appear and the husband is the father. If the gene from the father mutated, the daughter will be colorblind since she will get a defective gene from the mother as well.
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